| Judson McClendon 2008-02-18, 6:56 pm |
| "William M. Klein" <wmklein@nospam.netcom.com> wrote:
> "Judson McClendon" <judmc@sunvaley0.com> wrote:
> <snip>
>
> It is clear (to me) that when taken t "face value" that means that one may not use the term (in whatever lanaguage you want) for
> either your biological male parent OR for a (religious) leader. Do you read it that way, i,e. that the Bible prohibits calling
> your bioligcal male parent "father" or do you take it more loosely for biological isues that other uses of the term?
I answered that elsewhere, but my interpretation is that it seems unlikely
that Jesus would be forbidding the use of "father" for a relationship that
the Bible uses the term "father," i.e. biological or adopted male parent.
That leaves only the spiritual/authoritative possibility. A Roman Catholic
priest is both, so if Jesus forbid the use for either case, it would include
priests. I don't see any other reasonable way to view it that is consistent
with Scripture, but I would like to know the official RC view. Perhaps
they have a very reasonable explanation that I would agree with myself.
But I won't that know unless/until I know what it is. :-)
> P.S. See my other post on how I would use the "gifts of God" for understanding such passages. (And I am quite certain that the
> Roban Catholic and many other denominaties would do the same.)
That's precisely what I do in such situations. :-)
--
Judson McClendon judmc@sunvaley0.com (remove zero)
Sun Valley Systems http://sunvaley.com
"For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son, that
whoever believes in Him should not perish but have everlasting life."
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