| William M. Klein 2005-04-28, 3:55 am |
| "Chuck Stevens" <charles.stevens@unisys.com> wrote in message
news:d4p5u2$1h8$1@si05.rsvl.unisys.com...
>
> "William M. Klein" <wmklein@nospam.netcom.com> wrote in message
> news:X2Qbe.5694609$Zm5.875029@news.easynews.com...
>
<snip>
> A 14-year-old gangmember who murders a rival gangmember over drug turf is
> most likely fully aware of the consequences of his actions in the adult
> world, and may well be working under the presumption that *because* he is
> young he *won't* be prosecuted as an adult, and thus will get away with it
> (a chorus of Officer Krupke, anyone? ;-) ).
>
> Conversely, a 16-year-old girl who gets charmed into bed by 46-year-old man
> may not be prepared to think clearly on these issues; I believe the proper
> presumption is that *she* is a victim of statutory rape.
>
OK,
How do you feel about a 14-year old gang banger who sells himself (or
herself) to a 46 year old man (or woman) for xex in order to get money to buy
drugs? (And hopefully - I mean regretfully - we can agree that this DOES happen
today.) Which of these two (if either - or possibly both) is / should be
viewed as violationg the law? It is REALLY hard for me to say the 46 year old is
committing "rape" - but I would accept a statement that the 46 year old is
"contributing to the deliquency of a minor". (Which of course would lead into a
discussion of "Who's to blame the drug seller or the drug buyer? ... yet another
off-topic thread.)
All I was (oreiginally) saying is that "case by case" review can be used for
"age of consent" to the same (or no more) than it can/should be for "age of
copubility".
--
Bill Klein
wmklein <at> ix.netcom.com
|