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Programming Forum and web based access to our favorite programming groups.Georg Moritz wrote:
> From the keyboard of Yanick Champoux [12.01.08,18:50]:
>
>
> Actually the term "umlaut" in german denotes a "shifted" vowel. If you do
> a transition from "u" -> "e" biased towards "i" and stopping in the middle
,
> you have the "ü", which can be written as diphtong also: "ue". The "e" in
> "ue" was often placed above the "u" in old german writing (where the "e"
> was written like "n", but with a sharp bend instead of a curve before the
> last falling stroke). The four strokes necessary for that "e" were reduced
> to two, and those to dots, hence the two points above the "ü".
>
> So, the umlaut is a shortened form of a "diphtongy" denoting a shifted vow
el,
> and *not* a diaeresis ("ue" is not a diphtong, but an umlaut ;-)
>
Yup, I became aware of that yesterday when I shared my new golden
nugget of trivia with my wife. Being both German *and* a linguist, she
promptly corrected my inaccuracies. But she left out the part about the
'e' mutating into the two little dots that we know and love nowadays,
which I think is the
est part of the whole story, so thanks for
that! :-)
Joy,
`/anick
Post Follow-up to this messageFrom the keyboard of Yanick Champoux [12.01.08,18:50]: > *dieresis* or *diæresis *A diacritical mark (* ¨ *) optionally used in > English, oftentimes replaced by a hyphen. In English, the dieresis is used on > a second identical vowel to indicate a change in pronunciation of that vowel > or indicate it is pronounced in a separate syllable. It is sometimes referred > to as an « umlaut » when used with a single character or in a « diphthong. » > Examples: reëlecting, reëncoding, coöperation, coördination. I want to clarify (only because I myself wasat first) that an umlaut can be used IN a diphthong, but does not have any function in MAKING a diphthong. For example, the German diphthong "au" becomes "äu" due to umlaut, (or "vowel shifting"). Unless I am mistaken. -- John Douglas Porter ________________________________________ ____________________________________ ________ Never miss a thing. Make Yahoo your home page. http://www.yahoo.com/r/hs
Post Follow-up to this messageOn 14/01/2008, John Douglas Porter <johndporter@yahoo.com> wrote: > > From the keyboard of Yanick Champoux [12.01.08,18:50]: > used in > is used on > that vowel > referred > diphthong. =BB > Also na=EFf and na=EFve - non-identical vowels. > I want to clarify (only because I myself wasat first) > that an umlaut can be used IN a diphthong, but does not have > any function in MAKING a diphthong. For example, the > German diphthong "au" becomes "=E4u" due to umlaut, (or "vowel > shifting"). > In summary, umlaut and dieresis/diaeresis (also trema) are both diacritical marks. Same symbol, but different meaning, where the meaning of the symbol depends on the context. The rule seems to be: second vowel of a pair=3Ddieresis, otherwise umlaut. Any counter-examples? > Unless I am mistaken. Same here... > -- > John Douglas Porter > > > > > ________________________________________ ____________________________= ________________ > Never miss a thing. Make Yahoo your home page. > http://www.yahoo.com/r/hs >
Post Follow-up to this messagesebb wrote: > The rule seems to be: second vowel of a pair=dieresis, otherwise umlaut. I'd call the symbol in "Brontë" a dieresis, not an umlaut. Maybe: when the symbol indicates the vowel is to be pronounced further forward in the mouth, it's an umlaut; when it indicates the vowel is to be pronounced on its own in a normal way, it's a dieresis. -- Keith C. Ivey <keith@iveys.org> Washington, DC
Post Follow-up to this messageOn Mon, Jan 14, 2008 at 05:16:42PM +0100, Georg Moritz wrote: > > yup, two examples: > > German: > "geärgert" (been) > - here the second vowel is an umlaut > > Quenya - the elven-tongue: > "ámen anta síra ilaurëa massamma" (give us today the daily our-bread) > - here the diaeresis is noted on the first vowel at ëa Don't forget the burning of the Böögg in Zürich at Sächsilüüte. http://de.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sechsel%C3%A4uten -- Paul Johnson - paul@pjcj.net http://www.pjcj.net
Post Follow-up to this messagesebb wrote: > On 14/01/2008, John Douglas Porter <johndporter@yahoo.com> wrote: > > Also naïf and naïve - non-identical vowels. But isn't that because these two words are straight lifts from French, where they have this exact spelling? It's not an English thing in this case. David
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